No different to how revenue fares are priced - PHL-LHR return is priced differently to LHR-PHL return.
I am confused. Is this meant to be a justification, a simple observation, or just another example of BA's chicanery?
Originally Posted by
Globaliser
Whatever the merits of the policy to divide BA's portion of a cash ticket between base fare and carrier surcharge, the higher surcharge for tickets starting in the US hasn't been arbitrarily and exclusively imposed in order to "screw a yet a bit more out of" those redeeming for tickets starting in the US.
Granting, for the sake of argument, that you are correct, what *is* the reason for the higher surcharge for tickets ex-US?
Originally Posted by
Globaliser
And this has been the case for a long time now.
So it's just a time-honoured practice? That's the reason?
Certainly, in one sense, it is what is -- take it or leave it. I don't see a point in getting into an argument about it on a public forum such as FT. But I am still at a loss as to what the justification is.