Originally Posted by
Goldorak
I will never understand some subtilities of airline pricing. Knowing that it is the same plane flying to SIN continuing to CGK, it's hard to understand why CGK is €500 cheaper than SIN. And also considering that usually it is the opposite situation knowing that SIN is a much more competitive market than CGK.
I am not sure that there is anything subtle about it really: just standard supply and demand economics. The SIN market can sustain higher prices than the CGK one, so why forego revenue needlessly by charging the same fares for SIN as for CGK?