Originally Posted by
Julian Brennan
Re the billpay thingy I'm still a little lost how it would matter to either the CC bank or Amex as in Redbird issuer. When I use let's say Amexcard A, Barclaycard B and Citicard C to load RB, for A/B/C it's a Target purchase, correct? Then I use a portion of that amount stored on the RB and pay back to A/B/C. For A/B/C the payment will come from Amex - not from Target. I understand since Amex is on the same payment network it could raise flags and should be avoided but B and C should be good, right? Why make it more complicated than necessary? What am I missing?
Does anyone have even a single data point for this "loop" theory, involving charging a cc to load RB, then using RB to pay off that same cc, resulting in getting undue attention from a bank?
I just don't think I have ever seen a single data point to indicate doing that could be a problem. Other than in the paranoid imaginations of a few posters, based on no data points whatsoever.