Originally Posted by
Majuki
If it did go to a chargeback, what bearing would Harrods having provided a refund have on the outcome, especially if you had signed an invalid signature?
I suppose the question can be answered by restating the facts from Harrods "the customer was charged, had some problem with the way he was charged and refused to sign/provided crappy signature,
so we refunded his money".
Then I have to go find someone to accept the refund was incomplete without being fobbed off by generic statements about exchange rates.
Originally Posted by
Majuki
While Visa/MC do not require a void function, doesn't this open them up to liability in the case that you say, "I did not receive goods/services that I anticipated."?
No, they say "amount refunded to customer"