Originally Posted by JEFFJAGUAR

But where does the 1% come from in the example we're discussing. Does their acquirer charge BA 1% which BA passes along to the customer? Or does the cc network charge 1% because they feel their perogative to charge 1% on currency conversion is being violated? Especially if no currency conversion takes place. Whose 1% is being passed along before the 2% is added on? Is it the acquirer? Is it the credit card network? Is it the merchant? I was always under the illusion it is the credit card network which adds the 1% and then gives the customer's bank the option of adding the additional 2%. So for those relatively good banks (relatively good as some banks absorb the whole thing) that only charge the 1% ftf and claim they are simply passing on the fee from well from whom. That's the part I still don't understand.

Originally Posted by JEFFJAGUAR

So when I get my bill, I get it that the additional 2% Bank of America or Citiblank or Chase may impose is a total rip off. We agree there. But what about the 1%? Who profits from that? Visa? British Airways? British Airways acquirer processor? That's the part I don'tunderstand in equating what the airline does to dcc.