Originally Posted by
Often1
Fairly typical FT rant involving picking a sub-section of an obscure rule published by one federal agency to suggest that it excuses the underlying wire (maybe mail) fraud involved when an individual purchases a ticket which he does not intend to fly.
He intends to fly it if the fare goes up tomorrow.
A customer calls and says he might want him to come to a meeting in 2 weeks. Based on that, he buys a ticket, intending to firm up the details and whether or not the customer actually wants him to come the next day. The next day, the customer decides no, and he cancels the ticket.
That's no more "intent to fly" than the first case. Would you say it's also illegitimate and fraud?