slightly OT:
But does this work for all credit cards - a hotel recently overcharged me but refunded the payment to my Amex on file (I paid with a MasterCard).


In my MR statement it shows that a deduction of MR points cause of the credit. Is this the way it normally works? Hardly fair isn't it?
I can understand a deduction if it was for crediting a recent transaction that was charged to the card - e.g. returns on clothing.
But if there was no prior charge for this transaction why should they deduct my MR?