Originally Posted by
biggestbopper
IMHO, it is indeed an unlawful deceptive practice under both Federal Trade Commission law and rules and state Unfair and Deceptive Practices Acts (UDAP), particularly when you are not give a real choice. See, for starters,
http://www.nclc.org/images/pdf/udap/..._50_states.pdf which summarizes each state's UDAP law.
Okay. I'm willing to accept this argument, but Visa/MC could argue that they aren't breaking any laws in and of themselves based on the fact that they are at least two stages removed from the infringing parties (Visa/MC-->acquirers--->processors--->agents who market the processors' products--->merchants).
The question is how high up the food chain can you reasonably pin the blame?