Originally Posted by
Dr. HFH
... Fortunately, the DOT regs supersede the common law of contract in cases like this, and we don't have to deal with the issue of unilateral mistake. If we did, I'm quite certain that we'd lose.
Dr. HFH, is this concept of "unilateral mistake" only a phenomenon of German (or Austrian / Swiss law) or is it also a concept of English common law? If the former only, then would it have any relevance to a CMB-DFW fare purchased by an US resident and paid with a US CC?
PS. I presume (and please correct me if I am wrong), your legal qualifications have Germanic origins?