Originally Posted by
mikew99
There seems to be some confusion about the definition of the "marketing carrier" with respect to baggage fees:
(1) Is it the airline whose ticket number/stock was used? (UA in the OP's case.)
(2) Or is it the airline whose code and flight number were used? (HA in the OP's case.)
An answer lies in the
DOT FAQ on Rule #2, which is available here:
http://airconsumer.dot.gov/rules/rules.htm
Because the OP's ticket shows HA's code and flight number as the
first operating carrier, it is clear that the DOT considers HA to be the marketing carrier for the first segment, and HA's baggage rules apply. So,
Phoenixtinct's analysis is correct, and HA violated DOT regulations by collecting UA's baggage fees in this case.
OP, hope this information helps you to make things right!
No, no, and no.
It is who the sold the ticket. That is the
marketing carrier. Period. Marketing carrier
is who sold the ticket - regardless of who the operating carrier is.
You can't cherry pick examples as who sold the ticket override the examples you gave.
Op said it wasn't a codeshare nor an interline - therefore, your examples don't apply. It is a ticket sold by another carrier.