Originally Posted by
BearX220
The OP's story was a case of policy trampling good sense. Very often, if I'm drinking at a bar and ask for a Diet Coke to close after three or so beers, the soda doesn't show up on the bill. To the bar, it's about three pennies' worth of product, and the bartender insures him/herself a good tip.
Sounds like bribery to me. Hey, I'll give you some money, and in return you reduce the bill I have to pay the company.
But with that said, I am unable to understand the premise of this thread. Unless the restaurant offered club soda free of charge, or the OP had a coupon of some sort entitling him to free soda, on what basis would he expect to not be charged?