Originally Posted by
NickB
This is not comparable. If you buy a ticket from, say, KBP to JFK (albeit via CDG), and start in CDG, you are in effect substituting one product (CDG to JFK) to another (KBP to JFK).
It is similar to replacing you jar of pork liver pate with a jar of foie gras in your shopping basket. If you do not fly at all, then you are leaving the pork liver pate on the shelf. If you have paid the shop in advance, they do not care that you do not pick up the pork liver pate but they would certainly care if you substitute foie gras to pork liver pate and would, in all likelihood, ask you to pay for the difference.
You're making too complicated.
This thread is about skipping the last leg of a ticket, where the airlines argue that their are entitled to repricing.
However, if you want to keep the analogy with the foie gras, let's say that the shop sells 2 cans of foie gras for cheaper than one (promotion). You buy the 2 box promo, and only eat one. Discard the 2nd one.
Airlines argue that in this case, you should be charged extra and pay the difference between the cheaper 2 box promo and full fare one box.
My post was saying: what if I do not fly at all (or not eat not even one can)? Are they going to want to reprice me? If so, how much? And would the court agree?