Originally Posted by
ferrari_fan
I am not sure what the question is here but this flow works.
CC/GC => AP(A) => AP(B) => BB (works as ACH/DD). You can bill pay from BB to CC or the CC that sourced the GC and complete the cycle.
AP(B) has BB as an additional verified bank.
Originally Posted by
tonyflyer
hmm.. what is the benefit of having BB as the receiving account of AP as oppose to using a regular bank account, other than qualifying BB with free atm withdraw?
For those whose CVS would not take GC for payment. That is about the only thing I could think of this is the benefit.
Originally Posted by
ferrari_fan
That and just convenience if you are consolidating from several VR/GCs into one place. Have an IB/IP? you will find it handy
Not sure what IB/IP? mean. However it is a viable workaround if one tries to go GC/VR route but CVS wouldn't take GC but DC or CC only.