Originally Posted by
pandaperth
Also, IMHO the wording of the *A rule is much clearer that the wording of the OW rule, which is:
So for countries that do not have a local currency fare (for example Sth America and some African countries where the fares are published in USD), the conversion does not take place?
And for such fares, the issue of the fare perhaps being lower than in the country of sale does not arise?
That's how it reads to me, but of course that can't be how the good folks at the Tariff Desk will see it.