In these days, I'm planning my trip to Europe from North asia. I have read a lot of threads about Aeroplan mini RTW. So I have realized that I can take a trip to both Europe and USA in one redemption!! (Sorry, I'm a real newbie here.)

I made a tentative RTW route like below.

ICN-(PEK/BKK/SIN...)-ZRH(SO)-JFK(SO)-SFO(<24)-ICN

It only requires 105K in aeroplan reservation system. However, In Aeroplan reward chart from Asia 1 to USA requires 125K and from Asia 1 to Europe 1/2 requires 105K in J.

I really would like to know why this route only requires 105K instead of 125K?? I have no idea the reason why. I know, I have to accept this without a doubt because the quantity is less than my expectation. This question is totally for my curiosity.


The route can be divided as follows.

Outbound: ICN-(PEK/BKK/SIN...)-ZRH-JFK(destination)
Return: JFK-(SFO*)-ICN
(*In Return part, I can come back via europe cities again, Right?)

The distance from ICN to JFK is 6896 mi and that from ICN to ZRH is 5438 mi. In my thought, The point of turnaround should be JFK instead of ZRH in the example above because JFK is the farthest point from origin. Correct?

So outbound should require 125K and Return should require 125K, too. So, total mile requirement have to be 125K in J. Anyone can pinpoint errors in my analysis??

Does this mean that not JFK but ZRH is destination in this case? In that case, I can make an open jaw in Europe? Because I really need an open jaw in Europe. Otherwise, I have to purchase one-way flight from last visiting city in Europe to original landing city in Europe.

If there is any guru on Aeroplan, Please give me a satisfactory explanation about this. Thank you in advance!!

P.S. This is my first post in FT. If I violated something in this post, Please let me know.