Originally Posted by
golfmad
There were four £ transactions over a 3 week period. I took each one and looked up the XE.com rate on the day and what this should have equated to in $.
I then looked at the $ amount that the merchant had used and using the XE.com rate of that day calculated the overcharge in £ that the merchant had added with dcc.
I kept a running total of this £ overcharge and this total is the credit I received.
I used an average calculation of rates for the purposes of my summary post but for the real calculations I worked it out based on the rate on the date in question.
Does that answer you question?
Yes. I can see how you handled the matter. In cases like this, I have instead asked the merchant to reverse the charge with dcc and make a new charge in the local currency. After all, it is the bank, not the merchant, who operates dcc. According to the information I have been given, the merchant's credit is in local currency, not the converted currency, and the merchant does not profit at all from the dcc. But I suppose that could be a matter of negotiation.