I'm aware of the Ts and Cs but my question is why there would be a correlation between the ability to use the cheques and the rate? Is it because the cheques are available at some sort of discount?

Assuming the cost of the cheques are 100% of face value (with the exception of the MR redemption), why would the "mother ship" not reimburse a property? Seems to me that any discount offered by a specific property is a separate matter altogether.

Anyway, I'm familiar with the policy but would love to understand it.