Originally Posted by
CollegeFlyer
I don't know if this interpretation of "may" would be legally acceptable or not, even if it sounds plausible in plain English. I would not count on it unless someone can cite a case where this was actually upheld.
If a state has a law that says that the consumer is allowed to record any call that the credit card company records, that works. But if the state has no such law, I would not count on the interpretation of "may" above as authorizing the recording.
I think you can record any phone call in the U.S. as long as you have the permission of at least one of the participants. So as long as you are a willing participant, you should be fine.