Originally Posted by
tt1122
Very very confused. I have read on this forum about BA adding on YQ, that some airlines don't charge. Gardyloo, am I missing something, unless I fly IB for the first segment (assuming IB doesn't charge YQ like BA) aren'
t I better off having RJ issue the ticket and therefore wouldn't I want RJ to be the airline I fly on the first segment?
Please help steer me in the correct direction I am thinking of buying my first RTW ticket for travel in 2012.
The point I was making was in regard to an AONEx being issued in the Middle East.
It might very well be that having RJ be the first carrier, hence having the ticket issued by AA on RJ's behalf, might save some money overall in fuel surcharges. (But I'd caution not to overestimate the scale of savings. Do some dummy booking using the OWE tool - some with BA as the first/issuing carrier, and others with RJ/AA, and you might be surprised at how small the difference will be. Much depends on the route and carrier choice later.)
However my point was in the context of posters wanting the most first class bang for the buck. In the case of RJ as the first carrier, since there is no first class service into or out of AMM on Oneworld metal, choosing RJ means basically that at least the first, and potentially the first two, segments of 16 can't be in FC. In the case of KRT origins, it would be at least the first two, KRT-AMM and AMM-XXX, that would be in business class by definition.
In some peoples' minds, foregoing 2 FC segments out of 16 (at least) might be a sufficient disincentive that paying the extra YQ and/or country-of-issuance costs might be worth it, in order to originate in some country and/or some carrier that offers FC as soon as possible (which in the case of the Middle East means BA, full stop.)