Use of an invalid credit card in a manner not authorized to the individual by the card holder and/or the card-issuer may be considered a violation of law, but when there is no invalid card being submitted such that the card is actually hit with an actual charge against the wishes of the authorized card holder/user and/or card-issuer, there is no violation of law on that basis that any prosecutor I know would be willing to pursue. If you can find a prosecutor willing to pick up such a case, it would be rather amusing to see someone -- in the role of prosecutor -- making a laughing stock of himself/herself for no good reason.

Imagining a "violation" of the law so as to ban an individual for something that hasn't occurred seems but a ban on the basis of imagination run amok.