Originally Posted by
jkhuggins
Would such legislation actually work? I mean, look how well Jim Crow worked in the antebellum South. The Feds stepped in and preempted local laws then. Why wouldn't they do so again?
Please correct me if I'm wrong:
Here's how I see it. Regarding Jim Crow, the Fed was stepping in to enforce laws which GRANTED rights. The same is true of Roe v. Wade. The Fed has made abortion a right of it's citizens. Many states have tried to curb as much as they can of that right, but can't ban it outright.
In this case the Fed is USURPING rights via the TSA. The states should be able to constitutionally declare those federal practices invalid.
The Constitution spells out rights that we have. Technically, no one can take them away. The Fed protects us from the states trying to take the rights away and the states protect us from the Fed trying to take the rights away. In theory, obviously.
I am not a lawyer, have no legal training whatsoever, etc., etc. This just seems like an exercise in logic to me.