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Old Oct 14, 2009 | 5:09 pm
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serfty
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There seems to be a kicker in application here.

Buy the specifics of the quoted rule, when buying in the UK for travel ex Canada (from where there is a published fare), the Canadian rate would be converted to GBP and that fare charged, regardless of which is the higher/lower in relation to the fare from the UK.

So if the Canadian rate was lower it would be an advantage; however this is not the case currently.
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