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Longer distance = less expensive (occasionally)

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Old Feb 7, 2019, 5:26 pm
  #1  
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Longer distance = less expensive (occasionally)

In a particularly interesting twist sifting through east coast airports, I noticed United July 16 18:45 BDL-ORD-SFO being $60 less expensive on Orbitz that the BDL-ORD alone. I think there’s a term for airlines sometimes pricing it this way.
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Old Feb 7, 2019, 5:36 pm
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Originally Posted by vanillabean
In a particularly interesting twist sifting through east coast airports, I noticed United July 16 18:45 BDL-ORD-SFO being $60 less expensive on Orbitz that the BDL-ORD alone. I think there’s a term for airlines sometimes pricing it this way.
Nothing really surprising here. United thinks they can charge more/there is more demand to fly from BDL-ORD. Many airlines can get you from BDL to SFO with one stop. Less can get you from BDL to ORD nonstop.
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Old Feb 7, 2019, 6:15 pm
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Very common. Plenty of times my CLE-EWR is more expensive than CLE-EWR-LHR and almost always my CLE-YYZ is more expensive than CLE-YYZ-anywhere in the world AC flys nonstop out of YYZ.
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Old Feb 7, 2019, 6:21 pm
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This is and has been true on UA and almost every other carrier worldwide for 50+ years. Not only not new, it is old.

Prices are based on demand. WAS-NYC routinely costs more than WAS-LON.
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Old Feb 7, 2019, 6:54 pm
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One simple way to put it: Airlines (unlike many other industries) don’t use a “cost plus” model to price airfare.

They figured a long, long, long time ago that they could make more money dynamically pricing the way they do: based on demand, competition within each market, etc.

We all do ourselves a favor when we stop thinking that airlines price like almost everyone else. Much easier that way.
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Old Feb 7, 2019, 8:23 pm
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Airfare is not priced on a cost plus basis!
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Old Feb 7, 2019, 9:01 pm
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This is an example of "price discrimination" which is explained in almost every introductory microeconomics textbook. It occurs because the demand for BDL-ORD-SFO travel is more sensitive to price than that for BDL-ORD travel. This could be because, as has been suggested above, there more alternatives on the former route or because the former route is more leisure travel while the latter is more business travel. The seller must be able to prevent buying in the lowered priced market and selling in the higher priced market hence the prohibition on hidden city ticketing. Many apparent quirks in airline pricing behavior can be explained as price discrimination.
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Old Feb 7, 2019, 9:33 pm
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I would replace "occasionally" in the title with "often" or "usually", particularly on domestic itineraries.
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Old Feb 8, 2019, 1:49 am
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...and "hidden city ticketing" allows savvy travellers to take advantage of this pricing model @:-)

Google will have everything you need to know.
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Old Feb 8, 2019, 2:30 pm
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Originally Posted by Wombat1
This is an example of "price discrimination" which is explained in almost every introductory microeconomics textbook. It occurs because the demand for BDL-ORD-SFO travel is more sensitive to price than that for BDL-ORD travel. This could be because, as has been suggested above, there more alternatives on the former route or because the former route is more leisure travel while the latter is more business travel. The seller must be able to prevent buying in the lowered priced market and selling in the higher priced market hence the prohibition on hidden city ticketing. Many apparent quirks in airline pricing behavior can be explained as price discrimination.
uhhhh i don't think that's price discrimination. price discrimination is offering the same product (like haircuts, event tickets) but at different prices to consumers. bdl-ord is not the same product as bdlordsfo
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Old Feb 8, 2019, 2:53 pm
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Originally Posted by vanillabean
I think there’s a term for airlines sometimes pricing it this way.
Mileage Run!
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Old Feb 8, 2019, 2:57 pm
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Originally Posted by Often1
This is and has been true on UA and almost every other carrier worldwide for 50+ years. Not only not new, it is old.

Prices are based on demand. WAS-NYC routinely costs more than WAS-LON.
Also not new:
Threads created to talk about this.
:/
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Old Feb 8, 2019, 3:14 pm
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Originally Posted by cur
uhhhh i don't think that's price discrimination. price discrimination is offering the same product (like haircuts, event tickets) but at different prices to consumers. bdl-ord is not the same product as bdlordsfo
The product is the same as the BDL-ORD flight is being offered at different prices to two different groups - those who want to stop at ORD and those who want to continue to SFO - having different price elasticities of demand. It's text book price discrimination.
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Old Feb 8, 2019, 7:41 pm
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Originally Posted by Wombat1
The product is the same as the BDL-ORD flight is being offered at different prices to two different groups - those who want to stop at ORD and those who want to continue to SFO - having different price elasticities of demand. It's text book price discrimination.
No. It isn’t the same product. One is BDL-ORD and is sold by what the market is priced at. The second,
different, market is BDL-SFO which includes a flight that happens to include the same BDL-SFO leg but is a totally diffent itin.
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Old Feb 8, 2019, 9:05 pm
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Originally Posted by milepig


No. It isn’t the same product. One is BDL-ORD and is sold by what the market is priced at. The second,
different, market is BDL-SFO which includes a flight that happens to include the same BDL-SFO leg but is a totally diffent itin.
Actually it is the same product -- everyone takes the same plane from BDL to ORD. Rather than think of two different markets, think of it as two different types of buyers in the market for BDL to ORD flights. Some want to stop in ORD and some want to take a subsequent flight to SFO. The demand of the first group for BDL to ORD flights is less sensitive to price (they are business travelers or there are few alternatives to this flight) than that of the second group (they are leisure travelers or there are many alternative routings from BDL to SFO). Absent hidden city ticketing, United can increase its revenue by charging the first group a higher price to go from BDL to ORD than it charges the second group for that very same trip on the same aircraft. That the second group then takes a subsequent flight to SFO simply serves to allow United to discriminate between the two groups. Looked at this way, this is a text book example of price discrimination. You're obviously free to look at the situation another way if you'd like but realizing that this is price discrimination provides a simple, logical, and useful way to understand this and many other aspects of airline pricing behavior.
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