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If you pay your credit card in full before statement closes, do you still get miles?

If you pay your credit card in full before statement closes, do you still get miles?

Old Jun 29, 22, 3:18 pm
  #1  
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If you pay your credit card in full before statement closes, do you still get miles?

If you pay your credit card balance in full before the statement closes, do you still get the miles from your spending?

For example, if I spend $10,000 on a credit card but pay it in full before the statement is generated, the statement will show $0 due.

Will I still get 10,000 miles for the $10,000 spent, or will I get zero miles because the statement showed $0 due?

I would think so, but I'm so jaded that I wanted to check.

Thanks.
WeekendTraveler is offline  
Old Jun 29, 22, 4:45 pm
  #2  
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Originally Posted by WeekendTraveler View Post
If you pay your credit card balance in full before the statement closes, do you still get the miles from your spending?
I've done it many times and have always gotten the points. Years ago, I asked an inept agent who told me it was based on balance at closing. Fortunately, she was wrong.
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Old Jun 29, 22, 6:25 pm
  #3  
 
Join Date: Jul 2012
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Originally Posted by WeekendTraveler View Post
If you pay your credit card balance in full before the statement closes, do you still get the miles from your spending?

For example, if I spend $10,000 on a credit card but pay it in full before the statement is generated, the statement will show $0 due.

Will I still get 10,000 miles for the $10,000 spent, or will I get zero miles because the statement showed $0 due?

I would think so, but I'm so jaded that I wanted to check.

Thanks.
yes you will get 10,000 miles
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Old Jun 29, 22, 7:48 pm
  #4  
 
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Originally Posted by WeekendTraveler View Post
…Will I still get 10,000 miles for the $10,000 spent ...
One more datapoint for “yes, you will get 10,000 miles” (or maybe more if the card has bonus categories and any of your charges were in those bonus categories).

The procedure to pay all or most of a credit card balance immediately prior to closing date is not uncommon. Some (or many) people do it to have the issuer report a lower statement balance (and thus lower utilization, % of available credit used) to the credit bureaus so credit scores will not be adversely affected due to reports of “high” utilization. FWIW having ALL one’s personal cards (biz cards are not reported on one’s individual credit reports) report “0 %” (zero) utilization for a year or 2 will slightly adversely affect one’s scores, apparently 2% (other things being equal) is the sweet spot for utilization reports in order to maximize credit scores.
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