TeamStorm

A question that just popped into my head, and one of idle curiosity really.

How is BA going to manage the situation for it's US flights where it's using Mixed Fleet crews who by their very definition are likely to have at some point recently, flown to Europe - potentially on a night stop ?

I don't know the sophistication of BA's scheduling and rostering system, or even if someone building it would ever have considered the idea that they would have to select a flag to say 'don't send a crew to the US, if they have been to Europe'.

Perhaps Eurofleet is about to get the job of picking up more European destinations (but fewer flights), allow MF to concentrate on the long haul stuff.

Sorry, was just something going through my head, if anyone has any insight - am just curious .... I don't envy the headache that it risks causing on top of everything else that's going on.

Often1

Have you read the Proclamation?

It expressly exempts air crews.

TeamStorm

It appears to, however I don't see how it would work if a crew had done a standover in a European country, and their next trip was to the US a day later. They'd have landed, and been in that 'off limits' country that people who have been to, or are from, can't come to the US.

Unless it's just theatre, but that's a pretty expensive theatre show Trump is engaging in if that's the case.

As I said, was just curious

Globaliser

I don't see the issue here.

If a crew member travels from London to Europe and stays overnight there, then flies back to London and stays overnight there, they are permitted to fly to the US.

If a US citizen travels from London to Europe and stays overnight there, then flies back to London and stays overnight there, they are permitted to fly to the US.

If a non-US citizen (who does not fall within any of the other exemptions) travels from London to Europe and stays overnight there, then flies back to London and stays overnight there, they are not permitted to fly to the US.

windowontheAside

But it doesn't matter where they've been and for how long if they are exempt from Trump's restrictions.

Fatdickie

Any one of the three could catch the virus

How is the UK citizen any different from the US citizen when it comes to being infected?
The UK citizen could have had a day trip to Amsterdam, whilst the US citizen has just completed 4 weeks touring loads of countries throughout Europe

BERbound

I'd guess that by excluding a large proportion of visitors they are delaying the spread of the virus , so the number of infected occurs at a more manageable level rather than a sudden rush that may flood health facilities and services.

Globaliser

The difference is that the US citizen is entitled to enter the US, whether or not they are infected. (What the US does with them thereafter is a post-arrival matter that doesn't concern the airline.)

In contrast, the UK citizen can only enter the US with permission.

windowontheAside

The UK citizen is likely to be doing a discretionary (to a varying degree) trip whereas the US citizen is likely to be returning home. Prohibiting both from travelling to the US would result in very different degrees of consequences.

LTN Phobia

It's simply that a country cannot disallow entry by their own citizens. Nothing to do with how likely one would be to pick up an infection etc.

Often1

.You still cannot possible have read the Proclamation, especially where it expressly exempts air crew. Directing you Section 2(vii).

"any alien traveling as a nonimmigrant pursuant to a C-1, D, or C-1/D nonimmigrant visa as a crewmember or any alien otherwise traveling to the United States as air or sea crew;"

To be clear, an air crew member who performs a UK-Schengen (EU has nothing to do with this) flight, overnights in Schengen and returns to the UK, could then perform a UK-US flight without new limitation.