Filthy Monkey

Anonba

Abstract1

I mean surely this is just ridiculous..It means it could never end.. Imagine you were just changing to the following day from BOS....And imagine the fare on the fare basis you were on dropped by 1 EUR since you purchased the ticket. Does that mean you then have to up the fare to a higher R class or even D and pay hundreds more????

Globaliser

It rather sounds like the agents were exactly right, as we have already posted above. If the rule is that you can only change to an equal or higher fare, that is the rule. The "if lower, ignore residual" provision can only apply if you are allowed to change to a lower fare to begin with, as you sometimes are.

If you were to get to the highest possible A class fare and if (that's a big "if" there) any further change is still subject to "equal or higher", it is almost certain that you could still change to a higher F class fare. So no, it would not mean no changes allowed. It is not the agent who is being clueless here.

Globaliser

If you don't like the rules, don't buy a ticket with these rules.

Abstract1

Clever and useful input there, thanks!

Ok then riddle me this. Mr Globaliser buys the highest A fare available, ANN7C0S2 to LAX for Ł13100 + tax, and this fare clearly has the 'equal or higher' rule. But mid trip, Mr Globaliser decides actually he must fly back to London from PHL instead...But oh no, the maximum fare to PHL in F is Ł11517 + tax!!!

Globaliser

If you want also to re-route to one on which the fares are generally cheaper, and your original fare imposes the "equal or higher" restriction in the case of every change, then you may get bitten by that; it's then a change not allowed by the fare rules. There are, after all, plenty of changes that fare rules don't allow: for BAEC FT purposes, most notoriously ex-UK I class long-haul fares. You can, if you're prepared to do the work beforehand rather than relying on poorly-informed personal assumptions. find out what you're buying before you buy it.

In that specific example, if I had wanted the freedom to make a change from LHR-LAX-LHR to LHR-LAX//PHL-LHR, I could have originally bought F1N0C0S0 at Ł15,438 + TFC. I would have had to weigh up the pros and cons of paying the extra Ł2,300 for that particular kind of flexibility; or at least I would have been paying the cheaper fare knowing that there would be restrictions and inflexibilities that might prevent me from subsequently making certain kinds of change. Or, in other words, I could pay extra to have the phrase "I want" be the governing factor.

Abstract1

Ok so you agree that in my example you are stuck. I would imagine that most people...myself included as i do always do it, would say to an agent..

Can my ticket be rerouted mid trip?

They say 'Yes it can'.

So. to use my example, is it then allowable to say to me when i am in LAX...actually sorry now the conditions are such that actually you cannot change the ticket any more to return from PHL. you can only change it to SAN or DEN etc that has a higher fare available. Ie we will dictate as to where you can fly back from, even though everywhere is available. Do you honestly believe that BA would say this is correct and not allow you to return from PHL?

In contrast, and in utter ridiculousness, had I have bought a cheaper ticket then this would be no problem.

Anonba

Abstract1

Exactly, it simply wouldn't happen, despite what Globaliser thinks. There is no way they would prevent you from changing purely as there is no higher fare.....The rule simply could not be enforced....and therefore shouldn't be enforced (within same booking class) for lower tickets. It's not right to enforce or not enforce it as and when it suits.

Anonba

Globaliser

That would not be what BA is doing in that situation. If BA has a policy of "We won't enforce this rule if the change that the passenger wants to make is prevented only by the absence of any equal or higher fare on the new route", that does not amount to enforcing the rule only when it suits.

You can't demand that the rule always be ignored simply because there are some extreme cases in which the rule produces an undesirable result that might result in a waiver. That really would be taking the "I don't like this" argument to unreasonable lengths.

JAXBA

Quote:

Originally Posted by Abstract1

...imagine the fare on the fare basis you were on dropped by 1 EUR since you purchased the ticket...

That wouldn’t matter for changing the return, as the historical fare would be used and therefore would still be equal.

It IS a frustrating rule, and no one is really defending it; we’re just explaining how it works, and what the alternatives are.

Abstract1

Yes fair point i didn't consider that.

Abstract1

So then you do think that in my example or LAX/PHL, BA will not allow you to change your ticket?