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Refused Downgrade - What are my rights?

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Old Feb 15, 2019, 10:20 am
  #31  
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Originally Posted by mec72
(I've seen at least one report in another thread where someone bought a relatively cheap J fare in a promo months in advance and the airline tried to insist on using a fully-flexible walk-up Y fare for the purposes of the 75% calculation).
can you explain what you mean? The 75% is just that. If the eligible fare you paid is 1000, you just get a payment of 750 as compensation. Nowhere does a Y fare high or low come into play in the regulation.

and I would personally say that it typically is a decent level of compensation.

Last edited by orbitmic; Feb 16, 2019 at 2:11 am
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Old Feb 15, 2019, 7:00 pm
  #32  
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Originally Posted by mec72
I find it a bit surprising that there's so little customer protection here - a delay which (depending on the facts) may be a far small nuisance than having to fly 12h in Y instead of F, gives you decent compensation. I can't help but think that legislators at the time of drafting these provisions had thought that 75% should be decent compensation and failed to foresee how airlines will be trying to push the envelope when calculating the 75% figure (I've seen at least one report in another thread where someone bought a relatively cheap J fare in a promo months in advance and the airline tried to insist on using a fully-flexible walk-up Y fare for the purposes of the 75% calculation).
You have this completely wrong.

EC 261/2004 downgrade refunds are based on a percentage of the fare paid. If you pay $2,000 (base segment fare) for an F ticket and are downgraded, the refund is $1,500. It does not matter what the value of the new ticket is on the date of the downgrade.

Many people would be quite thrilled with that outcome. Others would prefer to wait for the next flight with F availability. While they are not entitled to it, most carriers will accommodate. But, at that point you have not been downgraded so no refund. You also have not been delayed by the carrier, you have been delayed by your own choice. So, no delay compensation.

No need to make this more complicated than it is. Because it is not. Whatever the merits of the Regulation, it is simple in this case.
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Old Feb 15, 2019, 8:57 pm
  #33  
 
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Originally Posted by Often1
You have this completely wrong.

EC 261/2004 downgrade refunds are based on a percentage of the fare paid. If you pay $2,000 (base segment fare) for an F ticket and are downgraded, the refund is $1,500. It does not matter what the value of the new ticket is on the date of the downgrade.

Many people would be quite thrilled with that outcome. Others would prefer to wait for the next flight with F availability. While they are not entitled to it, most carriers will accommodate. But, at that point you have not been downgraded so no refund. You also have not been delayed by the carrier, you have been delayed by your own choice. So, no delay compensation.

No need to make this more complicated than it is. Because it is not. Whatever the merits of the Regulation, it is simple in this case.
But.... the OP was double downgrade so Is $1500 (hypothetical of course in this example) enough? I personally don’t think so, not to go from lie flat to WT.
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Old Feb 15, 2019, 9:45 pm
  #34  
 
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Originally Posted by arh1


But.... the OP was double downgrade so Is $1500 (hypothetical of course in this example) enough? I personally don’t think so, not to go from lie flat to WT.
While I know this is fantasyland currently, at an absolute minimum, I think the minimum compensation should be the maximum of 75% of the fare, the cost of an AUP, or the difference in fare between the ticket purchased and the cheapest ticket available on the date of purchase. I also think that the calculation should then be made for all passengers and each downgraded passenger should receive the maximum of all potential downgraded passengers. This would prevent an airline from selling a last minute full fare ticket and then downgrading the cheapest fare.
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 1:27 am
  #35  
 
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Originally Posted by dylanks


While I know this is fantasyland currently, at an absolute minimum, I think the minimum compensation should be the maximum of 75% of the fare, the cost of an AUP, or the difference in fare between the ticket purchased and the cheapest ticket available on the date of purchase. I also think that the calculation should then be made for all passengers and each downgraded passenger should receive the maximum of all potential downgraded passengers. This would prevent an airline from selling a last minute full fare ticket and then downgrading the cheapest fare.
Unfortunately, not everyone can have it the way they want. I'm sure airlines would love to cap EU261 delay cancellation. They must be really frustrated paying €600 compensation to a pax on a Ł278 cheap economy return and ditto for duty of care in bad weather, something completely out of their control.
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 6:47 am
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Can I just ask this: is BA contractually entitled to forcibly downgrade a customer? I appreciate the EU Regulation providing for compensation appears to be predicated on the assumption that under the Regulation compensation is not payable if the customer 'refuses' a downgrade (which makes sense as they are not in fact downgraded). But what about contractual rules here? Is BA contractually entitled to forcibly downgrade a customer and, quite apart from statute, do ordinary breach of contract principles not apply? Would a taxi at the end of an overnight flight really be too remote? What about an extra day's car parking?

IE I purchase widget A (a business class flight on BA) with serial number xyz (flight number on a particular date). When I go to collect my widget I am told no but you can have widget B (an economy class flight). I say 'no actually I ordered widget A so I will have widget A please. If I had wanted widget B I would have purchased it'. The customer didn't end up with widget A with serial number xyz, but ended up with something different because the airline was unable to provide that which the customer had purchased. I appreciate this might not be an EU compensation case but where does the OP stand contractually?
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 7:01 am
  #37  
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Originally Posted by IAMORGAN
Can I just ask this: is BA contractually entitled to forcibly downgrade a customer? I appreciate the EU Regulation providing for compensation appears to be predicated on the assumption that under the Regulation compensation is not payable if the customer 'refuses' a downgrade (which makes sense as they are not in fact downgraded). But what about contractual rules here? Is BA contractually entitled to forcibly downgrade a customer and, quite apart from statute, do ordinary breach of contract principles not apply? Would a taxi at the end of an overnight flight really be too remote? What about an extra day's car parking?
(Edited 10:52) It's not a condition so probably a warranty leading to damages? The contract will survive a change in class of service.

Last edited by percysmith; Feb 16, 2019 at 7:51 am
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 7:18 am
  #38  
 
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Originally Posted by percysmith
The opposite - BA has not made a contractual commitment to carry the passenger in ticketed class.
I admit to no relevant legal expertise, but curious how that squares with 3c7 in BA's Conditions of Carriage, which states (underline mine)

3c7) We will accept each flight coupon in your ticket for transportation in the class of service on the date and flight for which you have a reservation
I thought the premise of IAMORGAN's question interesting. We know that BA will voluntarily make other arrangements but are they legally obliged to? If there is space on the aircraft in a lower class could they refuse to offer any alternative to that option? (notwithstanding it would be a massive PR own goal)

Thanks to any of our friendly lawyers in advance!
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 7:32 am
  #39  
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Quite frankly, I suspect the ‘breach of contract’ question is a complete distraction: the breach of contract occurs if you are forcibly downgraded in which you get the ec261 amount anyway which would likely be an outstanding outcome in most case if such a breach of contract was not subject to a fixed regulatory payment.

if you refuse the downgrade and as the op did, ask to be rerouted on a given flight in original travel class, then in all likelihood, you’ve agreed your own remedy.

the only case when this might be relevant is if you said that despite ec261 not specifically allowing that, the breach of contract should be sufficient for the passenger to consider the contract null and void and thus asking for cancellation and reimbursement. Given you’d then need to buy your own way at the last minute, this would be unlikely to work in the passenger’s interest in most cases.
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 7:38 am
  #40  
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I'm thinking it's just compensation:

"10.2.4 If we are unable to provide confirmed space, we shall provide compensation to those Passengers who are denied boarding or who are involuntarily downgraded to the class below in accordance with applicable law." https://www.cathaypacific.com/conten...en.pdf#page=24

Yes I know it's another airline's CoC - and I'm a bit surprised BA's doesn't carry an equivalent term https://www.britishairways.com/en-gb...ns-of-carriage - but even in the absence in BA's CoC saying one way or another, what do you expect BA or a Small Claims Court to do?
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 7:42 am
  #41  
 
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I am a lawyer and I don't know the answer - hence why I am asking. Aviation is a law unto itself (literally!) but I certainly feel:

1. As a consumer, if I purchase a 'business class' ticket then if in fact the airline can force me to fly in economy (or lose my ticket with no compensation) then I would expect that term to have a big red hand next to it at the time of purchase.

2. Can BA simply say 'sorry Mr Morgan I know you booked club world but actually we don't guarantee it and here's your boarding pass for World Traveller seat 30E. Take it or leave it but if you leave it you will be treated as a no show and will lose your ticket'?

3. If that is right then it must also be right that I could say 'well I'll leave it thanks but I'll buy a new Club World ticket tomorrow'. 'Ok that'll be $4,000'. Next day "sorry Mr Morgan but we don't guarantee you'll travel in Club. Here's a boarding pass for World Traveller seat 30E. Take it or...."

Is that actually the law?
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 7:49 am
  #42  
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Couldn't the downgraded passenger decide not to travel and force a full refund by doing a credit card chargeback? To me, this would be equivalent to ordering an item by mail and either it's never sent to you or the wrong item has been sent and the merchant refuses to correct the situation. Of course the obvious problem is that if one wants/needs to travel (or if the downgrade occurs on the return portion of a RT ticket), one must purchase a more expensive last minute ticket.
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 7:51 am
  #43  
 
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Originally Posted by orbitmic
Quite frankly, I suspect the ‘breach of contract’ question is a complete distraction: the breach of contract occurs if you are forcibly downgraded in which you get the ec261 amount anyway which would likely be an outstanding outcome in most case if such a breach of contract was not subject to a fixed regulatory payment.

if you refuse the downgrade and as the op did, ask to be rerouted on a given flight in original travel class, then in all likelihood, you’ve agreed your own remedy.

the only case when this might be relevant is if you said that despite ec261 not specifically allowing that, the breach of contract should be sufficient for the passenger to consider the contract null and void and thus asking for cancellation and reimbursement. Given you’d then need to buy your own way at the last minute, this would be unlikely to work in the passenger’s interest in most cases.
I follow that to a point - surely the breach occurs when you are purportedly downgraded. My point is that the downgrade is a change to the contract - I thought I had purchased a business class flight and now you are giving me an economy class flight which is not what I purchased (I am trying to work out whether there's something in BA's ts and cs entitling them to unilaterally change the cabin of service). As you say I guess then the question is whether the customer can treat it as a repudiatory breach and where the losses flow. Or could the customer try to get an order for specific performance of the original contract (i.e. business class) albeit at a later date? I'm just trying to work out exactly where the line is.

Isn't 261/2004 complementary to any contractual remedies? Or is it a complete code?
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 7:55 am
  #44  
 
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Originally Posted by p17blo
My questions was about rights and the answers are in line with what I expected, so I'll chalk it up to poor customer service and vote with my wallet next time I don't have a ton of miles and 241 vouchers to use.
Originally Posted by p17blo
Incidentally, as a result of my perception over the customer service handling, i've today cancelled 2 return Club World flights to SFO and rebooked them with VS.
Ok, serious question; what makes you so confidently sure that any other airline would have treated the situation differently under the exact same circumstances? Not sure if you are paying attention to the trajectory this industry is going, but I think you are make a gigantic, enormous assumption there my friend.

Regards
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Old Feb 16, 2019, 8:22 am
  #45  
 
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Originally Posted by IAMORGAN
I am a lawyer and I don't know the answer - hence why I am asking. Aviation is a law unto itself (literally!) but I certainly feel:

1. As a consumer, if I purchase a 'business class' ticket then if in fact the airline can force me to fly in economy (or lose my ticket with no compensation) then I would expect that term to have a big red hand next to it at the time of purchase.

2. Can BA simply say 'sorry Mr Morgan I know you booked club world but actually we don't guarantee it and here's your boarding pass for World Traveller seat 30E. Take it or leave it but if you leave it you will be treated as a no show and will lose your ticket'?

3. If that is right then it must also be right that I could say 'well I'll leave it thanks but I'll buy a new Club World ticket tomorrow'. 'Ok that'll be $4,000'. Next day "sorry Mr Morgan but we don't guarantee you'll travel in Club. Here's a boarding pass for World Traveller seat 30E. Take it or...."

Is that actually the law?
Also not a lawyer but seems to be based on the EC wording and anecdotes. Which seems disappointing at best. In reverse why can’t I buy a $250 WT ticket and ask for a CW seat if BA’s only condition they get me A to B.

As i have said before 75% comp does not make up a big enough difference to cover lie flat to WT downgrade regardless of how EC is worded.

Just looking at some direct prices for next week there is far larger than a 75% delta between the prices.
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