Originally Posted by
SNAGuy
... a [carrier 1] coded ticket but the flight is operated by [carrier 2]?
Just so's I'm clear on that whole thing- is this kind of booking done explicitly to use [carrier 1]'s points/status/etc. on a route served better/cheaper by [carrier 2], or does this happen in practice by the airlines 'cause [carrier 1] is part of an alliance with [carrier 2] and [carrier 2] has a "lock" on some routes?