Originally Posted by mikebor

So I still have to travel but 1 thing I have noticed is that a lot of hotels that are open are still charging a decent amount for a room. I mean they have 2% occupancy but their rates don't seem to reflect that. Not all but some. So I have noticed a general theme by the managers when I call and ask why their rates are so high when nobody is traveling. Or not many are traveling.

The theme seems to be that they don't want to make the rate too low to attract a different type of clientele to stay there. When I press them on what that means they pretty much tell me to read between the lines in so many words.

So I'm asking here, does this kind of response sound prejudice or biased or discriminatory in any way? Like who don't they want staying there, people that can afford a $59 dollar rate but not $159? And I've gotten this same type of answer from multiple managers at multiple hotels I have called.

Again to me it reeks of hidden discrimination. They don't want low income people(and a lot of other adjectives) staying there as it would bring down the reputation of the property. So these hotels would rather have a 2% occupancy at a $159 rate than a 10-15% occupancy at a $69 rate because of the different kind of people who would stay there smh. Unbelievable this goes on in 2020.