Originally Posted by
surfmonkey89
I have two regular, $95 Bonvoy cards, one Amex and one Chase, as a result of the merger and my SPG being converted. After the recent re-categorizing, I'm wondering if getting rid of those and replacing them with the Brilliant might make more sense for me. I'd be replacing two $95 cards, with 35K FNAs, with one $450 card with one 50K FNA and a $300 hotel credit, and it seems like the latter scenario would be easier to redeem than to try to find 35Ks. I'd still get the 6x multiplier, and while Amex isn't as widely accepted in Europe, most of my stays would be in the US anyway.
Am I missing something, or does in this case having one $450 card actually make things easier than two $95 cards?
Originally Posted by
surfmonkey89
Yes, that’s exactly right. Seems like I’d have more flexibility, and really have two free nights, with one of them in an real-life currency that can’t be arbitrarily devalued by Marriott.
This is absolutely brilliant. It does provide more flexibility; as oppose to just focusing on two nights, one might be able to stretch the $300 to two nights (or close there of such as 1-1/2 nights) and adding the FNA, then will have a 3-night stay. Some may balk at using FNA for $150 night but that is at least break-even. I will admit that is not great as one is prepaying, but by having the card, there can be possibilities of out size value (just not every time which is fine by me).
As I have both the AMEX Marriott personal and business, this approach (having just Brilliant) might work out better. It will defiently open up an AMEX 5 credit card slot.