I understand the idea of supply/demand but then surely adding on UK connections should make it cheaper, since you have to stop somewhere anyway.
Why is say KLM often cheaper for say LBA-AMS-BOM than BA with LBA-LHR-BOM? Either way the pax have to change planes.
Similarly, anyone flying from MAN to the Far East has a choice of a huge range of "1-stop" carriers, but BA is often the most expensive via LHR. Is this because it's still priced as if it was a direct flight to the main destination, plus a domestic add on, rather than priced like ex-EU which has to take into account there is a stopover?