Originally Posted by
IceTrojan
One way it could affect accounting is that a credit back to the original form of payment of the card's account owner. If this was paid on a company card and expense reports were involved, I'm sure there would be some additional paperwork involved to account for the unexpected additional funds.
If the refund was issued in the form of a voucher, then no need to rebalance the books. Also, the voucher would happen to be in the name of the flying passenger.
Of course the books would still need balancing - just that it would need balancing based on a voucher rather than cash
In either case , there would be discrepency between amount incurred and amount expensed
In this case though, it seems that it was balanced by only charging the one way cost up front
Originally Posted by
PbodyPhoto
That was fine by me as I knew I would use the ticket back to EU and come home on miles or a cheap ticket but I ended up having to cancel that trip. If it goes back on the original card it just creates much more of a headache than it really needs to.
Was the schedule change on the outbound journey or the inbound which allowed you to avoid the change fee?
It would seem reasonable that if the schedule change allowed a cancellation of the inbound without penalty , that the fare difference be refunded
if the Europe-USA flight was impacted by enough to trigger entitlements under EC261, then definitely would be a cash refund.