Originally Posted by
Flying Lawyer
The relevant period is the statutory limitation period in the relevant jurisdiction. Full stop. It might be unfriendly to come with a hotel charge after a year or so but it is certainly not unjustified. And seriously: I personally know whether or not I paid a bill or not via my creditcard (and I am certainly not the one with few charges).
This is my situation: I do know that I paid for the room because I purchased the opening special rate. From the PC transaction history, I did claim 1 night of points. But PC charged me 2 nights points 1 year 8 months later.
When I complained, PC asked me to proof it by showing my 1 year 8 months old hotel bill. Certainly I don't keep hotel bills that long. I have to fall back to my credit card bills - which is a problem because I have cancelled a few cards since. As consumers are we legally subject to such treatment? I can understand if PC came back and claimed within 6 months, but this is 1 year 8 months later.