Originally Posted by TheDapperDon
(Post 21506083)
It's got a set limit, so I wonder how they think it's greedy. I just don't want to risk relationships with a couple of my banks.
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Originally Posted by Ted King
(Post 21505655)
But I wouldn't bank with one of the CC issuers. What is the saying about "not shitting where you eat"?
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Originally Posted by Often1
(Post 21505559)
Best of luck to you and the four posters before you. You can justify anything you want to yourself. Sooner or later, you're gonna wish you hadn't.
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Originally Posted by vagrants
(Post 21504277)
Isn't that apply for a transaction split? So, if one transaction -> 1 MO, technically that doesn't apply?
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Originally Posted by AnalystGuy
(Post 21507679)
Any activity taken to avoid the required reporting can qualify, IMHO.
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Originally Posted by Often1
(Post 21505559)
Best of luck to you and the four posters before you. You can justify anything you want to yourself. Sooner or later, you're gonna wish you hadn't.
I can tell you from discussions from other FI professionals that in some districts, a SAR filing for structuring results in a freeze order showing up for the account soon after. Warning, soap box rant ahead. It is foolish to stray outside of the law...even if the dollar thresholds seem low because they are not adjusted for inflation. And it is even more foolish to talk about doing it on FT when you have no idea who is in the audience. <End rant> |
Originally Posted by Andy2
(Post 21505239)
While it is great that you are cautioning people to be aware of the structuring laws, I personally think your statement is too bold. It is structuring if a person is making those deposits at multiple banks in specific amounts in order to keep those banks from filing transaction reports. There are other business reasons that people use multiple banks to deposit money orders. Some FTers that do the MO thing use a debit card from a non local bank such as Bank of America to purchase the money orders. If that person mails those money orders to BOA for deposit, he gets hit with a teller fee plus he takes a risk of loss by essentially mailing cash. Many banks only allow $2,000 per transaction and $4,000 per month free ACH transfers to another account. So a person might open mutile accounts in order to deposit the money orders and send the money to BOA. That person might have done this with no thought to currency reports.
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Originally Posted by AnalystGuy
(Post 21507771)
This is a critical point. If you have a valid reason for doing something it isn't structuring. For example, we've had instances where someone always deposited just under 10k each day...that screams structuring. However, after checking with them (and their insurance carrier) we determined that they were doing it because their insurance bond required them to have no more than 10k on hand at anytime. That's not structuring and we were able to exempt their account.
A SAR is reported in this instance, no? It's very suspicious to me even with the verification. "To have no more than $10k on hand at any time," that means this person was draining near $10k everyday and depositing near $10k everyday...also, isn't this person have to be doing this on behalf of a corporation or something to be the "exempt person", no? |
Originally Posted by vagrants
(Post 21507804)
But, a SAR is reported in this instance, no? It's very suspicious to me even with the verification. "To have no more than $10k on hand at any time," that means this person was draining near $10k everyday and depositing near $10k everyday.
This was a specific case I was using to show that intent matters, but it probably isn't relevant to what everyone was talking about. |
Originally Posted by AnalystGuy
(Post 21507847)
I should have been more specific. Their business (store) was generating around that amount each day (sometimes more or less) but they were always bringing in right under 10k because of the insurance issue. In other words, if they were bring 11k to the bank and got robbed they would not be covered. After investigating their insurance and tax payments we gave them an exemption...there is a part of the FinCEN regs that allow this for a business but it is limited.
This was a specific case I was using to show that intent matters, but it probably isn't relevant to what everyone was talking about. http://www.fincen.gov/news_room/rp/f...backReport.pdf http://www.fincen.gov/whatsnew/pdf/CTRPamphletBW.pdf |
I was going to post a pretty flippant comment about the paranoia level here, but instead let me put it more constructively.
I believe the risk of being accused of structuring is miniscule. The risk of being convicted of it significantly lower again. But even as a raging bull on the MO game, I would agree the risk is not 0, unless you are rounding to at least I would say 10 decimal places. Of course the potential consequences could be huge. We call this tail risk. The best defense is to not act in a manner that is consistent with structuring activity. If I have half a dozen bank accounts, and one day I obtain $10k in money orders and deposit them in one, and the next day I obtain $8k and put them in another and so on that is not structuring. If one day I obtain $30k in money orders and break it up into 4 $7500 deposits in an attempt to avoid reporting requirements, while I still stick with my risk probabilities above, there is some possibility that could be painted as structuring. However you are doing it, keep a good paper trail so in the highly unlikely event something happens you can show what you were doing and why. And if you think my risk probability above is too aggressive, just don't play this game and find another sand box to moan in. |
Originally Posted by AnalystGuy
(Post 21507755)
...Are there real world cases of people charged and convicted solely of structuring? Yes, there are some...
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Originally Posted by AnalystGuy
(Post 21507679)
Any activity taken to avoid the required reporting can qualify, IMHO.
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Originally Posted by ma91pmh
(Post 21508159)
I was going to post a pretty flippant comment about the paranoia level here, but instead let me put it more constructively.
I believe the risk of being accused of structuring is miniscule. The risk of being convicted of it significantly lower again. But even as a raging bull on the MO game, I would agree the risk is not 0, unless you are rounding to at least I would say 10 decimal places. Of course the potential consequences could be huge. We call this tail risk. The best defense is to not act in a manner that is consistent with structuring activity. If I have half a dozen bank accounts, and one day I obtain $10k in money orders and deposit them in one, and the next day I obtain $8k and put them in another and so on that is not structuring. If one day I obtain $30k in money orders and break it up into 4 $7500 deposits in an attempt to avoid reporting requirements, while I still stick with my risk probabilities above, there is some possibility that could be painted as structuring. However you are doing it, keep a good paper trail so in the highly unlikely event something happens you can show what you were doing and why. And if you think my risk probability above is too aggressive, just don't play this game and find another sand box to moan in. The government can and does make examples of people. The government can and does change their priorities and policies on enforcement. Ask Credit Suisse and the other Swiss banks how things are working out for them. |
Originally Posted by AnalystGuy
(Post 21507679)
Any activity taken to avoid the required reporting can qualify, IMHO.
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