Originally Posted by
GUWonder
My travel costs on a per mile flown basis are significantly higher in Europe than it is in the US. While that is only personal anecdotal experience, where's the empirical evidence that shows my anecdotal experience to be an anomaly? I would certainly love to see it.
I believe it is safe to say that GUWonder and his or her flying habits are indeed most certainly an anomaly compared to 99% of the flying public both in United States and Europe. And, I mean this as both a compliment and an indication that your anecdotal experience is not representative.
Your flying is organized by rather extreme expert knowledge and experience on how to game the sales and distribution systems.
In general the US systems are trivial to game compared to the European ones.
Therefore, it stands to reason that your US flying costs would be lower where for a representative customer this would not necessarily be the case.